A 70-year-old man is hospitalized for 1 day of melenic stool and 3 days of epigastric pain and weakness. The patient has coronary artery disease, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia and had a ST-elevation myocardial infarction 3 years ago. Medications are low-dose aspirin, carvedilol, lisinopril, and rosuvastatin.
On physical examination, vital signs are normal.
Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin level of 6.5 g/dL (65 g/L) (baseline of 13 g/dL [130 g/L]).
One unit of blood is transfused, and aspirin therapy is withheld. Urgent endoscopy performed the following morning reveals an ulcer in the duodenal bulb with active oozing of blood from a visible vessel. The bleeding vessel is successfully treated with epinephrine injection and bipolar cautery. High-dose, twice-daily proton pump inhibitor therapy is initiated.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient's aspirin therapy?
