A 41-year-old man has a 9-month history of nausea, vomiting, early satiety, and postprandial bloating. His only other medical problem is chronic shoulder pain, for which he takes daily ibuprofen.
Vital signs are normal. The abdomen is distended, with epigastric tenderness without guarding or rigidity. A succussion splash is heard.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
